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010 AIRLAW

P55
Quiz by JoonaT
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Last updated: September 22, 2022
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First submittedSeptember 22, 2022
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1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?
True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow. ✓
True. ✓
False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way ✓
False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything. ✓
2. How shall two aircrafts avoid collision when they are approaching each other head-on in the air?
Powered-aircraft has a right of way, non-powered aircraft shall deviate to the right. ✓
Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left. ✓
Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right. ✓
Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left. ✓
3. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?
Certificate of Registration. ✓
Flight crew licences. ✓
Flight crew birth certificates. ✓
Certificate of Airworthiness. ✓
4. When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should:
Attempt to establish communications with the intercepting aircraft over 121.5 MHz and comply with the intercepts signals. ✓
All answers are correct. ✓
Squawk 7700. ✓
Acknowledge receipt of intercepting aircraft instructions with the appropriate visual signals. ✓
5. Movement area consists:
Apron ✓
Runway and taxiway ✓
Standard departure and arrival routes and runway ✓
Runway, taxiway and apron ✓
6. When should the student pilot present her/his Pilot Medical Certificate?
Before her/his first solo flight. ✓
At giving in the exam's application. ✓
Before the beginning of theoretical lessons. ✓
Before the beginning of a practical training. ✓
7. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?
Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. ✓
Class 1 Medical Certificate only. ✓
Class A or Class B Medical Certificate ✓
Class 2 Medical Certificate only. ✓
8. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aircraft must an applicant have for a PPL?
15 hours. ✓
10 hours. ✓
20 hours. ✓
25 hours. ✓
9. The Flight Time is the total time from the moment:
When an aircraft becomes completely airborne until the moment it finally touches the ground at landing. ✓
Aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight. ✓
When an aircraft starts its engine(s) for the purpose of taking off or when a non-powered aircraft first moves, until the moment engine(s) stop(s) operating or when a non-powered. ✓
When an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. ✓
10. Aircraft or personnel with endorsed certificates or licences may NOT participate in international navigation:
Under any circumstances. ✓
Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered. ✓
Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is registered or which issued the licence. ✓
Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state. ✓
11. Which of the following statements concerning the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of EASA FCL license is correct?
Applicant has successfully completed theoretical knowledge exams if he/she passes 75% of examination papers. ✓
There are no limitations on how many times you can retake the examination paper. ✓
All exams shall be completed within 12 months. ✓
All exams shall be completed under the responsibility of one Member State. ✓
12. When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, which way should each aircraft turn?
Each aircraft should turn to the right. ✓
Each aircraft should turn to the left. ✓
Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right. ✓
Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left. ✓
13. What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?
PICAO. ✓
ICAO and EASA. ✓
The Convention on International Civil Aviation. ✓
The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention. ✓
14. Maximum validity of the EASA LAPL/PPL pilot licence is:
3 years. ✓
5 years. ✓
2 years. ✓
It is not limited. ✓
15. According to the rules of air, series of white flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:
Return to starting point on the aerodrome. ✓
Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron. Clearance to land is given separately. ✓
Taxi clear of landing are in use. ✓
Cleared for taxiing. Clearance for take-off is given separetely. ✓
16. What color are paved taxiway markings?
White. ✓
Yellow. ✓
Green. ✓
Red. ✓
17. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
Height. ✓
Elevation. ✓
Altitude. ✓
Flight Level. ✓
18. Mandatory instructions, for example holding position signs are:
White inscription on red background ✓
Red inscirption on white background ✓
Black inscription on yellow background ✓
Yellow inscription on black background ✓
19. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:
Blue omnidirectional lights. ✓
Alternate red and green lights. ✓
White directional light. ✓
Yellow directional light. ✓
20. You notice right after departure that your radio is broken. Tower shows series of white flashes to you. What does this mean?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. ✓
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land. ✓
Return for landing. ✓
Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron. ✓
21. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a double white cross (Picture H) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Take special care during approach and landing! ✓
Caution, sailplanes in the air! ✓
Ground taxiing permitted outside runway and taxiways! ✓
Landing prohibited, the airport is not safe! ✓
22. When are navigation lights required to be used?
Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on. ✓
From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority. ✓
When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome. ✓
At night or when specified by the authority. ✓
23. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:
A study of departure procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. ✓
The designation of an alternate airport. ✓
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. ✓
A study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. ✓
24. If a LAPL/PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that she/he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, she/he must:
Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point complying with the last clearance received. ✓
Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind. ✓
Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land. ✓
Remain clear of the CTR. ✓
25. What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (PPL)?
Class 2 Medical Certificate only. ✓
Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate. ✓
Class 1 Medical Certificate only. ✓
Class A or Class B Medical Certificate. ✓
26. Arrow search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:
Require assistance ✓
Proceeding in this direction ✓
Require medical assistance ✓
Arrow is not a search and rescue ground signal ✓
27. Uncertainty phase means:
A situation wherein exists uncertainty about the safety of an aircraft and íts occupants, or there exists other reasons to take actions in order to make sure if there is a need for help. ✓
None of the alternatives is correct. ✓
A situation wherein exists certainty about the safety of an aircraft and íts occupants, or there exists other reasons to take actions in order to make sure if there is a need for help. ✓
A situation wherein an aircraft has not send requested location. ✓
28. "V" search and rescue ground signal in the scene of accident symbolizes:
Assistance is not required ✓
Require assistance ✓
Require medical assistance ✓
We stay here ✓
29. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?
30 ✓
25 ✓
40 ✓
35 ✓
30. At least how many hours of dual instruction on an aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?
10 ✓
15 ✓
25 ✓
20 ✓
31. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that she/he is to undergo surgery, what are her/his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?
She/he has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter. ✓
She/he should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on her/his circumstances. ✓
She/he should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if she/he is due to receive a general anesthetic. ✓
There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command until after the surgical operation. ✓
32. Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a PART-FCL PPL?
Class A or B. ✓
Class 1 or 2. ✓
Class 2 or 3. ✓
Class B or C. ✓
33. What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?
Both should turn to the left. ✓
Both should make a climbing turn to the left. ✓
Both should turn to the right. ✓
Both should make a climbing turn to the right. ✓
34. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine:
Check the accuracy of the navigational equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). ✓
Review traffic control light signal procedures. ✓
Check CVR funtion prior departure. ✓
Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. ✓
35. A pilot's licence issued by one EASA member State may be converted to a licence of any other EASA member State (the new member State), provided that:
The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new Member State lasting at least three months. ✓
The new Member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State. ✓
The new Member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence. ✓
The licence holder has resided in the new Member State for at least 31 days. ✓
36. During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean?
Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight! ✓
You have been intercepted. Follow me! ✓
Leave the prohibited area immediately! ✓
You may proceed! ✓
37. Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):
Off course to the right. ✓
Below the glide slope. ✓
Above the glide slope ✓
On the glide slope. ✓
38. The departure and arrival time entered by a LAPL/PPL holder in her/his flying log book is taken as follows:
The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing of the sortie. ✓
The time the aircraft enters the active runway for the first take-off and the time it vacates the runway after the last landing. ✓
The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest following the last ✓
The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-down. ✓
39. Aircraft can be registered to Finland if:
The aircraft has type approval from FAA ✓
The aircraft is registered to other country ✓
The aircraft is in Finland ✓
The aircraft has certificate of airworthiness that is given in Finland ✓
40. What should a holder of a medical certificate do, when she/he becomes aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation/invasive procedure, the regular use of medication or the regular use of correcting lenses?
The holder can continue flying with pilot's own discretion. ✓
The holder must pass the aviation medical exam again. ✓
The holder must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days. ✓
The holder must, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice. ✓
41. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture B) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Gliders are operating. ✓
Do not land. ✓
Helicopters are operating. ✓
Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area. ✓
42. An aircraft and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the aircraft, which has the right-of-way?
The aerotow. ✓
Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft. ✓
Both aircrafts. ✓
The aircraft in free flight. ✓
43. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:
Should not stop before the lines without ATC clearance. ✓
May continue taxiing. ✓
Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines. ✓
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. ✓
44. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:
Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3.0 km. ✓
Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. ✓
Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km. ✓
Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km. ✓
45. A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Taxiway/runway unserviceable! ✓
Caution, you are approaching the intersection with the runway! ✓
Helicopter landing area! ✓
Caution, you are approaching the intersection with other taxiway! ✓
46. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to:
The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport. ✓
The elevation of the airfield. ✓
1013.2 hpa. ✓
The altitude zero. ✓
47. The one takeoff and landing during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an aircraft, in case carrying passengers at night, must be done during the time period from the:
Sunset to sunrise. ✓
The end of evening civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon to the beginning of morning civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon. ✓
Sunrise to sunset. ✓
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. ✓
48. Which of the following describes threshold lights?
Green unidirectional ✓
Red unidirectional ✓
Green omni-directional ✓
Red omni-directional ✓
49. In ICAO emergency phases, alert phase means:
A situation wherein aircraft's performance has declined so that emergency landing is probable ✓
A situation wherein aircraft has not arrived to destination aerodrome within 30 minutes after estimated arrival time, and when there is no radio contact to the the aircraft ✓
A situation wherein the state of the aircraft is unknown ✓
A situation wherein it is certain that an aircraft does not require instant assistance ✓
50. If an aircraft does not give landing report agreed in the flight plan within 30 minutes from landing, the situation is called:
Uncertainty phase ✓
State of emergency ✓
Alert phase ✓
Distress phase ✓
51. Series of green flashes to aircraft in flight mean:
Cleared to land ✓
Return for landing ✓
Continue orbiting ✓
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling ✓
52. Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?
The aircraft which has another aircraft at her/his right side. ✓
Bigger aircraft. ✓
The aircraft on the right. ✓
The ultralight aircraft. ✓
53. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
Flight in turbulent air. ✓
All flight conditions. ✓
Takeoffs and landings. ✓
Level flight. ✓
54. Application for the grant of a EASA LAPL/PPL licence must be made within ____ completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.
18. ✓
36. ✓
12. ✓
24. ✓
55. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a sign (Picture I), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010- 04)
Parking site to the right. ✓
Continue to the next airport, the runway is closed. ✓
After landing vacate the runway by right turn. ✓
Turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off. ✓
56. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each circular portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways. ✓
Landing prohibited for prolonged period. ✓
Landing, takeoff, and taxiing confined to runway and taxiways only. ✓
Caution, gliders in the air. ✓
57. What action should a pilot take if she/he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?
Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield. ✓
Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control tower. ✓
Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC. ✓
Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft. ✓
58. An applicant for a LAPL/PPL must be at least ____ years old.
15. ✓
18. ✓
16. ✓
17. ✓
59. The validity of a private pilot licence is determined by the validity of:
The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate. ✓
It is valid eternally after completion of required skill test. ✓
The Medical Certificate only. ✓
The licence itself, as endorsed in the licence. ✓
60. An ATC clearance provides:
Adequate separation from all traffic. ✓
Adequate separation from VFR traffic. ✓
Priority over all other traffic. ✓
Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. ✓
61. When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?
Each morning before first flight. ✓
Yearly. ✓
Monthly. ✓
Before each flight and in the air, if necessary. ✓
62. The air traffic control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on ground, a red flashing light means:
Taxi clear from landing area in use ✓
Stop ✓
Permission to cross landing area or to move onto taxiway ✓
Vacate manouvering area in accordance with local instructions ✓
63. Abbreviation for terminal control area is:
CTS ✓
TMA ✓
CTA ✓
FIR ✓
64. Abbreviation VMC means:
Visual meteorological conditions ✓
Instrument flight rules ✓
Visual flight rules ✓
Instrument meteorological conditions ✓
65. What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?
Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled. ✓
An airspace within which air traffic control services are not provided. ✓
Airspace around an airport. ✓
Airspace immediately above an airport with more than one runway. ✓
66. SEP (single engine piston) class rating is valid:
1 year ✓
2 years ✓
5 years ✓
3 years ✓
67. What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from a rule?
Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation. ✓
Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended. ✓
Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviation will occur. ✓
Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs. ✓
68. An aircraft is cleared by ATC to "maintain 3000 feet or below in terminal area". The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with:
The aircraft commander. ✓
ATC and the aircraft commander. ✓
ATC only. ✓
Finnish Civil Aviation Authority. ✓
69. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?
Require assistance. ✓
Require medical assistance. ✓
All survivors are uninjured. ✓
This is our position. ✓
70. Estimated time of arrival in VFR flight means time, when:
The aircraft is estimated to arrive over the destination aerodrome ✓
The aircraft is estimated to land to the destination aerodrome ✓
The aircraft is estimated to vacate the runway of the destination aerodrome ✓
The aircraft is estimated to stop taxiing at the destination aerodrome ✓
71. What is the meaning of a double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area? (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-02)
"Glider flights in operation." ✓
"Prohibition of landing." ✓
"Closed runways or taxiways." ✓
"Cleared to land." ✓
72. Runway end lights are:
Green ✓
Blue ✓
White ✓
Red ✓
73. "X" search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:
Assistance is not required ✓
We stay here ✓
Require medical assistance ✓
Require assistance ✓
74. Illustration B indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):
Off course to the left. ✓
Below the glide slope. ✓
Above the glide slope. ✓
On the glide slope. ✓
75. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, the pilot should:
Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL. ✓
Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL ✓
Make all turns to the right, unless otherwise indicated. ✓
Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. ✓
76. As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class rating?
5 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings. ✓
12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 5 takeoffs and landings. ✓
12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings. ✓
10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings. ✓
77. At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Light Aircraft Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?
80 NM; 1 landing. ✓
80 NM; 2 landings. ✓
150 NM; 1 landing. ✓
100 NM; 2 landings. ✓
78. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
Clear to land. ✓
Return to this airfield and await landing clearance. ✓
You have priority to land. ✓
Land immediately. ✓
79. Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of- way during landing, is correct?
Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception of turboprob aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft. ✓
Aircraft in final stage of an approach to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit, has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. ✓
Aircraft at higher level shall give way to aircraft at lower level, but the latter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft. ✓
Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft. ✓
80. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing:
Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state. ✓
Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered. ✓
Must ensure that aircraft is equipped with operational radio and transponder. ✓
Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign state. ✓
81. How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator?
10. ✓
5. ✓
15. ✓
7. ✓
82. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?
7777 ✓
7700 ✓
7600 ✓
7000 ✓
83. A LAPL/PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with Special VFR must have the following minima:
A minimum visibility of 10 km or more and remain in sight of the surface. ✓
A minimum visibility of 1,5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. ✓
A minimum visibility of 5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. ✓
A minimum visibility of 3,0 km or more and remain clear of cloud. ✓
84. Abbreviation for control zone is:
FIR ✓
CTR ✓
TMA ✓
AFIS ✓
85. At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?
200 NM; 4 landings. ✓
100 NM; 2 landings. ✓
100 NM; 4 landings. ✓
150 NM; 2 landings. ✓
86. What is the definition of "Transition level''?
The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude. ✓
The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "height". ✓
The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude. ✓
The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level. ✓
87. An accident must be reported if it happens between the time that the first person boards an aircraft and until the time that everyone has left the aircraft. Which of the following accidents must NOT be reported?
The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure. ✓
Anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft. ✓
A passenger dies from natural causes. ✓
The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing. ✓
88. How long is a EASA PPL(A)/PPL(H) issued for?
8 years. ✓
3 years. ✓
5 years. ✓
Indefinitely. ✓
89. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the LAPL/PPL holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same:
Class, but not the type. ✓
Type, but not the class. ✓
Make and model. ✓
Type or class. ✓
90. What action should the pilots of an airplane or a helicopter and a glider take if on a head-on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right. ✓
The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane/a helicopter. ✓
The airplane/helicopter pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable. ✓
The airplane/helicopter pilot should give way. ✓
91. A slightly high-glide-slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is:
Two white lights and two red lights. ✓
Three white lights and one red light. ✓
Four red lights. ✓
Four white lights. ✓
92. What is the meaning of "WIP"?
With permission. ✓
Weight increase procedure. ✓
With effect from. ✓
Work in progress. ✓
93. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Flashing yellow ✓
Fixed red. ✓
Flashing red ✓
Fixed orange ✓
94. The skill tests for a class or type rating must be taken within ____ of completing flying instruction.
One year. ✓
3 months. ✓
6 months. ✓
4 months. ✓
95. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Plan?
Ground Speed. ✓
Calibrated Air Speed. ✓
Indicated Air Speed. ✓
True Air Speed. ✓
96. Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is 20°W?
FL 40. ✓
FL 30. ✓
FL 55. ✓
FL 65. ✓
97. The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the:
Flight information region. ✓
Control area. ✓
Terminal control area. ✓
Control zone. ✓
98. The vertical limits of a control zone are:
From the surface to the defined FL. ✓
From the surface to 900m MSL. ✓
From GND to the bottom limit of a terminal area. ✓
From the surface to the defined altitude. ✓
99. Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:
Altitude and course. ✓
Altitude and speed. ✓
Height and speed. ✓
Heading and speed. ✓
100. What should the glider pilot do, if the glider is on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?
She/he should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine airplane has the right-of-way. ✓
She/he may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way, however he should pay extra attention. ✓
She/he should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane. ✓
She/he should deviate to the right. ✓
101. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft up to and including 13,000 ft MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used by all crew members:
That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes. ✓
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. ✓
The entire flight time at those altitudes. ✓
Under PIC's dicretion ✓
102. A slightly below-glide-slope indication from a Precission approach path indicator system is a:
Three red and one white lights indication. ✓
Three white and one red lights indication. ✓
Three white light indication. ✓
Three red light indication. ✓
103. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. ✓
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. ✓
Denotes intersecting runways. ✓
Denotes entrance to runway from apron ✓
104. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there is a risk of collision? And who has right of way?
No. You do. ✓
Yes. You do. ✓
No. The other aircraft does. ✓
Yes. The other aircraft does. ✓
105. The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:
Hold any valid and current pilot's licence. ✓
Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA. ✓
Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state. ✓
Hold a licence issued or accepted by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered. ✓
106. How long is the period, before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?
2 months. ✓
1 month. ✓
15 days. ✓
3 months. ✓
107. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of LAPL/PPL must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:
24 calendar months. ✓
12 calendar months. ✓
3 calendar months. ✓
90 days ✓
108. A night flying inside the territory of Finland is defined by the state regulations as a flying between:
30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise. ✓
The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. ✓
60 minutes before sunset and 60 minutes after sunrise. ✓
30 minutes before sunset and 30 minutes after sunrise. ✓
109. The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be:
Those of the state of the visiting aircraft. ✓
Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures. ✓
Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states. ✓
Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited. ✓
110. Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching. ✓
Aircraft A if B is on its right. ✓
Aircraft B if A is on its left. ✓
Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching. ✓
111. What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indicate unserviceability of any portion of a manoeuvring area?
White and orange cones bordering the unserviceable area. ✓
Crosses of single conspicuous color (preferably white) displayed horizontally. ✓
Large red squares with yellow diagonal markings displayed horizontally. ✓
Orange flags bordering the unserviceable area. ✓
112. Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?
The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons being pursued in law. ✓
The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory. ✓
The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory, given due cause. ✓
The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory. ✓
113. Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?
The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had detached from the aircraft while it was airborne but where the safety of the aircraft was not necessarily compromised. ✓
An engine failure in flight. ✓
A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight. ✓
A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take-off or landing roll. ✓
114. Illustration C indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):
On the glide slope. ✓
Off course to the left. ✓
Above the glide slope. ✓
Below the glide slope. ✓
115. A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes when flying higher than:
3,000 ft MSL. ✓
3,000 ft GND. ✓
700 ft MSL. ✓
2,200 ft GND. ✓
116. If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, she/he has to:
Notify the Aeronautical Information Service. ✓
Transmit a general call giving all details concerning her/his deviation from the ATC clearance. ✓
Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call. ✓
Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance. ✓
117. What color are runway markings?
Yellow. ✓
White. ✓
Green. ✓
Red. ✓
118. An above-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:
Four red lights signal. ✓
Two white lights and two red light signal. ✓
Four white lights signal. ✓
Three white lights and two red light signal. ✓
119. Red pyrotechnic for an aircraft in flight means:
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. ✓
Orbit right until you get landing clearance. ✓
Caution, military exercises in the area. ✓
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being ✓
120. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?
Either IMC or VMC. ✓
Either IFR or VFR. ✓
IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC. ✓
In accordance with ATC instructions. ✓
121. In which regulation series regulations concerning personnel licensing are?
TRG ✓
OPS ✓
GEN ✓
PEL ✓
122. Flight visibility defined as:
The forward horizontal visibility from the cockpit during a flight ✓
Maximum distance from which big enough dark object can be observed and identified when observation is made against enlightned background ✓
Maximum distance from which an aircraft can be observed ✓
Defined visibility in aerodrome made by legal observer ✓
123. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of EASA-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects her/his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:
The medical certificate will remain valid. ✓
The medical certificate ceases to be valid. ✓
The medical certificate will be suspended after 25 days following the date of the injury or onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declared fit. ✓
The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the authority. ✓
124. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:
Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield. ✓
Continue approach and await a green light. ✓
Continue circling, give way to other aircraft. ✓
Do not land. Airfield closed. ✓
125. What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (LAPL)?
Class A or Class B Medical Certificate. ✓
Class LAPL Medical Certificate only. ✓
Class 1 Medical Certificate only. ✓
Class 1, Class 2 or LAPL Medical Certificate. ✓
126. The holder of a EASA LAPL/PPL who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding:
29 days. ✓
90 days. ✓
60 days. ✓
31 days. ✓
127. When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should:
Alter your course to the right. ✓
Fly below it exclusively. ✓
Fly below or above it. ✓
Alter your course to the left. ✓
128. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?
121.50 MHz ✓
406.00 MHz ✓
243.00 MHz ✓
123.45 MHz ✓
129. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use ' on an uncontrolled airfield?
The defined takeoff and landing portion of an aerodrome. ✓
A runway into the downwind. ✓
A part of the maneuvering area defined for takeoff and landing. ✓
A runway into a headwind. ✓
130. On the controlled airport you noticed a square yellow board bearing a black "C", exposed above one of the doors (Picture C). What does that mean? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Customs office. ✓
Air traffic services reporting office. ✓
Staff exit. ✓
Exit for private aircraft crew. ✓
131. An aircraft marshaller extends his right arm and wand in 90 degree angle from body and make "come ahead" signal with his left arm, that means: (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-01)
Turn right. ✓
Start your engine. ✓
Turn left. ✓
Keep moving ahead. ✓
132. Estimated off-block time means time, when the aircraft:
Departures ✓
Will commence taxiing associated with departure ✓
Gets takeoff clearance ✓
Gets taxiing clearance ✓
133. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds?
The Approach Controller. ✓
The duty Aerodrome Controller. ✓
The appropriate ATS authority. ✓
The local Area Control Centre (ACC). ✓
134. A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes is known as:
An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ). ✓
A Control Zone (CTR). ✓
An Airway. ✓
A Terminal Control Area (TMA). ✓
135. If a LAPL/PPL holder, who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:
Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into Instrument Meteorological Conditions. ✓
Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early. ✓
Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the controller's next instruction. ✓
Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply. ✓
136. If you have not received other instructions, after departure you:
Make turns right or left ✓
Make turns left ✓
Make turns right ✓
Do not make turns until you are outside of the traffic circuit ✓
137. Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are approaching same aerodrome for landing:
The lower aircraft always has the right of way. ✓
The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way. ✓
The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order. ✓
The higher aircraft always has the right of way. ✓
138. When a pilot of an aircraft is utilizing a precission approach path indicator (PAPI) in approach, he or she shall:
Keep 4 red lights during approach. ✓
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. ✓
Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing. ✓
Maintain an altitude at below the glide slope. ✓
139. There are three conditions that a holder of a EASA PPL(A) / PPL(H) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?
Is not flying for remuneration. ✓
Holds an Instrument Rating. ✓
Holds a valid medical certificate. ✓
Holds a Type or Class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown. ✓
140. The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is:
Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight. ✓
8,000 m. ✓
300 m. ✓
1,500 m. ✓
141. You notice a military aircraft on your left side. The aircraft is rocking and after that it makes a slow level turn to the left. You respond by:
Flashing navigational lights and selecting frequency 119,7 MHz. ✓
Rocking aircraft and following. ✓
Rocking aircraft and continue flight normally. ✓
Squaking 7500 and continue flight normally. ✓
142. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
2 years. ✓
6 months. ✓
1 year. ✓
3 years. ✓
143. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is:
Solo flight time under supervision. ✓
Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC). ✓
Flight time as pilot-in-command. ✓
Solo flight time. ✓
144. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished:
At a higher groundspeed. ✓
At a higher airspeed ✓
With a steeper descent ✓
The same as during daytime. ✓
145. An on-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:
Four white light signal. ✓
Three white and one red light signal. ✓
Four red light signal. ✓
Two red and two white light signal. ✓
146. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight mean:
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being ✓
Leave the traffic circuit ✓
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land ✓
Continue circling ✓
147. Manouvering area includes:
Runways, taxiways and aprons ✓
Runways, taxiways and ramps ✓
All parts of the movement area including the routes on the area ✓
Runways and takiways, excluding apron ✓
148. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a Private Pilot Licence?
45 hours. ✓
35 hours. ✓
50 hours. ✓
40 hours. ✓
149. What does "AAL" mean?
Angle of attack limitation. ✓
Acknowledge. ✓
Aerodrome altitude level. ✓
Above aerodrome level. ✓
150. How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?
18 months. ✓
12 months. ✓
The IR is valid provided regular skill tests are completed at intervals dictated by the authority. ✓
6 months. ✓
151. A below-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:
Four red light and one white light signal. ✓
Three red lights and two white lights signal. ✓
Two red lights and two white lights signal. ✓
Four red lights signal. ✓
152. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm. ✓
Land on hard surfaces only. ✓
Do not land. ✓
Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only. ✓
153. Minimum altitude (excluding landing and departure) over congested areas is:
1000 ft MSL ✓
500 ft above the highest obstacle within radius of 600 meters ✓
500 ft MSL ✓
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within radius of 600 meters ✓
154. What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?
It is left blank for VFR flights. ✓
The phrase "VFR: variable". ✓
The proposed cruising altitudes. ✓
Either the word "VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude. ✓
155. In Finland transition altitude is:
5000 ft QNH ✓
5000 ft QFE ✓
5000 ft 1013 hPa ✓
500 m QNH ✓
156. A LAPL/PPL holder is not permitted to:
Carry fare paying passengers. ✓
Tow a glider. ✓
Drop parachutists. ✓
Give flying instruction with an FI(A) rating. ✓
157. What is the meaning of the visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Landings are prohibited. ✓
Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing. ✓
Area unfit for movement of aircraft. ✓
Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only. ✓
158. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land or water areas where flights are never allowed is called:
Terminal area. ✓
Prohibited airspace. ✓
Restricted zone. ✓
Control zone. ✓
159. Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in Finland is:
A random four-placed number. ✓
The country flag of Finland. ✓
A fife-placed mark consisting of a certain combination of letters. ✓
The letters O and H. ✓
160. Series of green flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:
Cleared for take-off. ✓
Contact tower immediately. ✓
Cleared to taxi. ✓
Return to starting point on the aerodrome. ✓
161. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by:
Cross-checking of flight altitudes and altitudes from an aeronautical geographical chart 1:500 000. ✓
Setting the altimeter to QNH and checking the elevation reading while on ground. ✓
Cross-checking of altimeter readings and radioaltimeter readings. ✓
Low-passing near towers with known height. ✓
162. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?
Height. ✓
Elevation. ✓
Flight level. ✓
Altitude. ✓
163. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended?
All answers are correct. ✓
Any surgical operation or invasive procedure. ✓
Any illness involving incapacity to his functions as a member of flight crew throughout a period of 21 days or more, or any significant personal injury involving incapacity to undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew. ✓
Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy. ✓
164. What does the term "solo flight time" mean?
Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft. ✓
Solo flight time of a student-pilot. ✓
Flight time as a pilot-in-command. ✓
Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time. ✓
165. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?
Helicopter. ✓
A balloon. ✓
An aircraft in final approach for landing. ✓
An aircraft in distress. ✓
166. How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?
Quarterly. ✓
Yearly. ✓
On demand. ✓
Weekly. ✓
167. How many Annexes ICAO Convention contains?
96 ✓
18 ✓
36 ✓
3 ✓
168. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?
Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground. ✓
Only where the operator has given permission. ✓
Only when necessary for take-off and landing. ✓
Never. ✓
169. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a LAPL/PPL fly, provided she/he is properly endorsed?
All single-engined aircrafts provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. ✓
All aircrafts without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot. ✓
All aircrafts up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot. ✓
All aircrafts without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight. ✓
170. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white "T" (Picture F) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)
Landing and take-off direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm. ✓
Do not land. ✓
Land and taxi on hard surfaces only. ✓
Land on hard surfaces only. ✓
171. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight:
For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only. ✓
For flights overflying of the terminal zone. ✓
For all flights in the restricted zone. ✓
For flights entering or leaving the control zone only. ✓
172. Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least:
800 m. ✓
1,500 m. ✓
5,000m. ✓
1,200 m. ✓
173. Choose correct answer. Except when a special VFR clearance is obtained, VFR flights shall NOT take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are:
450 meter ceiling and 8.0 km visibility. ✓
Airspace is clear of clouds and 6.0 km visibility. ✓
300 meter ceiling and 4 km visibility. ✓
500 meter ceiling and 5.5 km visibility. ✓
174. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation is required?
6 minutes. ✓
4 minutes. ✓
2 minutes. ✓
5 minutes. ✓
175. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, a VFR flight shall not be flown lower than ____ above the ground or water, or 150m above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.
1500 ft / 1000 ft. ✓
800 ft / 1000 ft. ✓
1000 ft / 500 ft. ✓
500 ft / 500 ft. ✓
176. Which of the following is NOT a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?
Urgency phase. ✓
Alert Phase. ✓
Uncertainty phase. ✓
Distress phase. ✓
177. Controlled flight is:
A flight operated in formation ✓
A flight that operates under ATC clearance ✓
A flight with a flight plan ✓
A flight that is operated according to IFR ✓
178. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?
EASA. ✓
The operator. ✓
The authority of the state of registration. ✓
ICAO. ✓
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