Statistics for 010 AIRLAW

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This quiz has been taken 289 times
The average score is 68 of 178

Answer Stats

Question	Answer	% Correct
Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?	Flight crew birth certificates.	78%
How shall two aircrafts avoid collision when they are approaching each other head-on in the air?	Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right.	74%
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?	True.	70%
When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, which way should each aircraft turn?	Each aircraft should turn to the right.	69%
What color are paved taxiway markings?	Yellow.	69%
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:	Blue omnidirectional lights.	65%
Movement area consists:	Runway, taxiway and apron	64%
If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that she/he is to undergo surgery, what are her/his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?	She/he should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on her/his circumstances.	63%
When should the student pilot present her/his Pilot Medical Certificate?	Before her/his first solo flight.	61%
What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?	Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.	61%
When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should:	All answers are correct.	60%
What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?	Both should turn to the right.	60%
Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a PART-FCL PPL?	Class 1 or 2.	60%
Maximum validity of the EASA LAPL/PPL pilot licence is:	It is not limited.	60%
During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean?	You may proceed!	60%
Aircraft can be registered to Finland if:	The aircraft has certificate of airworthiness that is given in Finland	59%
Arrow search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:	Proceeding in this direction	56%
What should a holder of a medical certificate do, when she/he becomes aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation/invasive procedure, the regular use of medication or the regular use of correcting lenses?	The holder must, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice.	56%
What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?	Height.	55%
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine:	Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.	55%
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:	Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.	55%
What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?	Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled.	54%
Abbreviation VMC means:	Visual meteorological conditions	54%
When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?	Before each flight and in the air, if necessary.	53%
The one takeoff and landing during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an aircraft, in case carrying passengers at night, must be done during the time period from the:	The end of evening civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon to the beginning of morning civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.	53%
The departure and arrival time entered by a LAPL/PPL holder in her/his flying log book is taken as follows:	The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest following the last	53%
Mandatory instructions, for example holding position signs are:	White inscription on red background	53%
What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (PPL)?	Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.	51%
When are navigation lights required to be used?	From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority.	51%
According to the rules of air, series of white flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:	Return to starting point on the aerodrome.	51%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture B) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area.	51%
A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Taxiway/runway unserviceable!	51%
Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?	The aircraft which has another aircraft at her/his right side.	51%
The Flight Time is the total time from the moment:	When an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.	51%
A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing:	Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered.	50%
Runway end lights are:	Red	50%
In ICAO emergency phases, alert phase means:	A situation wherein aircraft has not arrived to destination aerodrome within 30 minutes after estimated arrival time, and when there is no radio contact to the the aircraft	49%
An ATC clearance provides:	Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.	49%
What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?	Clear to land.	49%
What is the meaning of a double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area? (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-02)	"Glider flights in operation."	49%
You notice right after departure that your radio is broken. Tower shows series of white flashes to you. What does this mean?	Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.	49%
What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?	7700	48%
What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?	The Convention on International Civil Aviation.	48%
Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of- way during landing, is correct?	Aircraft at higher level shall give way to aircraft at lower level, but the latter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft.	46%
Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):	Below the glide slope.	46%
Aircraft or personnel with endorsed certificates or licences may NOT participate in international navigation:	Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered.	46%
At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?	Require medical assistance.	46%
An aircraft and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the aircraft, which has the right-of-way?	The aerotow.	46%
An aircraft is cleared by ATC to "maintain 3000 feet or below in terminal area". The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with:	The aircraft commander.	46%
What action should a pilot take if she/he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?	Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield.	45%
Abbreviation for control zone is:	CTR	45%
Illustration B indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):	On the glide slope.	45%
What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from a rule?	Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.	45%
The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to:	The elevation of the airfield.	45%
At least how many hours of dual instructions on aircraft must an applicant have for a PPL?	25 hours.	44%
A LAPL/PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with Special VFR must have the following minima:	A minimum visibility of 1,5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.	44%
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, the pilot should:	Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.	44%
"V" search and rescue ground signal in the scene of accident symbolizes:	Require assistance	44%
What is the definition of "Transition level''?	The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude.	44%
A slightly high-glide-slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is:	Three white lights and one red light.	44%
A pilot's licence issued by one EASA member State may be converted to a licence of any other EASA member State (the new member State), provided that:	The new Member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.	43%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each circular portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.	41%
The validity of a private pilot licence is determined by the validity of:	The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate.	41%
What is the meaning of "WIP"?	Work in progress.	41%
Which of the following statements concerning the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of EASA FCL license is correct?	All exams shall be completed within 12 months.	40%
How long is a EASA PPL(A)/PPL(H) issued for?	Indefinitely.	40%
"X" search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:	Require medical assistance	40%
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the LAPL/PPL holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same:	Type or class.	40%
An applicant for a LAPL/PPL must be at least ____ years old.	17.	39%
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:	An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.	39%
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:	Fixed red.	39%
If a LAPL/PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that she/he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, she/he must:	Remain clear of the CTR.	38%
Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:	Takeoffs and landings.	38%
SEP (single engine piston) class rating is valid:	2 years	36%
Estimated time of arrival in VFR flight means time, when:	The aircraft is estimated to arrive over the destination aerodrome	36%
A night flying inside the territory of Finland is defined by the state regulations as a flying between:	The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.	36%
A slightly below-glide-slope indication from a Precission approach path indicator system is a:	Three red and one white lights indication.	36%
Abbreviation for terminal control area is:	TMA	36%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a sign (Picture I), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010- 04)	Turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.	36%
What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?	121.50 MHz	35%
At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?	30	35%
The holder of a EASA LAPL/PPL who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding:	90 days.	35%
You notice a military aircraft on your left side. The aircraft is rocking and after that it makes a slow level turn to the left. You respond by:	Rocking aircraft and following.	35%
The air traffic control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on ground, a red flashing light means:	Taxi clear from landing area in use	35%
At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?	150 NM; 2 landings.	34%
A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes when flying higher than:	3,000 ft MSL.	34%
How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator?	5.	34%
When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should:	Alter your course to the right.	34%
What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (LAPL)?	Class 1, Class 2 or LAPL Medical Certificate.	34%
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:	Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.	34%
Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:	Heading and speed.	34%
What color are runway markings?	White.	34%
As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class rating?	12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.	33%
In Finland transition altitude is:	5000 ft QNH	33%
On the controlled airport you noticed a square yellow board bearing a black "C", exposed above one of the doors (Picture C). What does that mean? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Air traffic services reporting office.	33%
Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use ' on an uncontrolled airfield?	A runway into a headwind.	33%
A LAPL/PPL holder is not permitted to:	Carry fare paying passengers.	33%
Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is 20°W?	FL 65.	33%
The vertical limits of a control zone are:	From the surface to the defined altitude.	33%
Uncertainty phase means:	None of the alternatives is correct.	33%
An airspace of defined dimensions above the land or water areas where flights are never allowed is called:	Prohibited airspace.	33%
The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by:	Setting the altimeter to QNH and checking the elevation reading while on ground.	33%
What should the glider pilot do, if the glider is on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?	She/he should deviate to the right.	33%
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft up to and including 13,000 ft MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used by all crew members:	The entire flight time at those altitudes.	33%
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished:	The same as during daytime.	33%
Estimated off-block time means time, when the aircraft:	Will commence taxiing associated with departure	33%
Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least:	1,500 m.	31%
How many Annexes ICAO Convention contains?	18	31%
To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of LAPL/PPL must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:	90 days	31%
What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?	Altitude.	31%
The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is:	Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.	31%
If a LAPL/PPL holder, who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:	Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply.	31%
When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?	Either IFR or VFR.	31%
An above-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:	Four white lights signal.	31%
Which of the following describes threshold lights?	Green unidirectional	31%
If you have not received other instructions, after departure you:	Make turns left	31%
Red pyrotechnic for an aircraft in flight means:	Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being	31%
Flight visibility defined as:	The forward horizontal visibility from the cockpit during a flight	31%
Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in Finland is:	The letters O and H.	31%
An aircraft marshaller extends his right arm and wand in 90 degree angle from body and make "come ahead" signal with his left arm, that means: (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-01)	Turn left.	31%
An on-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:	Two red and two white light signal.	31%
If an aircraft does not give landing report agreed in the flight plan within 30 minutes from landing, the situation is called:	Uncertainty phase	31%
While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there is a risk of collision? And who has right of way?	Yes. The other aircraft does.	31%
At least how many hours of dual instruction on an aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?	10	30%
Minimum altitude (excluding landing and departure) over congested areas is:	1000 ft above the highest obstacle within radius of 600 meters	30%
Illustration C indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):	Above the glide slope.	30%
What action should the pilots of an airplane or a helicopter and a glider take if on a head-on collision course?	Both pilots should give way to the right.	30%
Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is:	Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).	30%
Series of green flashes to aircraft in flight mean:	Return for landing	30%
Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?	The authority of the state of registration.	30%
Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Plan?	True Air Speed.	30%
At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Light Aircraft Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?	100 NM; 2 landings.	29%
Application for the grant of a EASA LAPL/PPL licence must be made within ____ completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.	24.	29%
Controlled flight is:	A flight that operates under ATC clearance	29%
The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the:	Control zone.	29%
A below-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:	Four red lights signal.	29%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white "T" (Picture F) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Landing and take-off direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm.	29%
When a pilot of an aircraft is utilizing a precission approach path indicator (PAPI) in approach, he or she shall:	Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.	29%
When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?	Only when necessary for take-off and landing.	29%
Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are approaching same aerodrome for landing:	The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.	29%
Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?	The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.	29%
The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be:	Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.	29%
How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?	2 years.	28%
Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?	An aircraft in distress.	28%
What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indicate unserviceability of any portion of a manoeuvring area?	Crosses of single conspicuous color (preferably white) displayed horizontally.	28%
The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:	Hold a licence issued or accepted by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered.	28%
There are three conditions that a holder of a EASA PPL(A) / PPL(H) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?	Holds an Instrument Rating.	28%
How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?	On demand.	28%
How long is the period, before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?	3 months.	26%
Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, a VFR flight shall not be flown lower than ____ above the ground or water, or 150m above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.	500 ft / 500 ft.	26%
What does "AAL" mean?	Above aerodrome level.	26%
Series of green flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:	Cleared to taxi.	26%
The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight:	For flights entering or leaving the control zone only.	26%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.	25%
A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes is known as:	A Terminal Control Area (TMA).	25%
What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?	Either the word "VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude.	25%
In which regulation series regulations concerning personnel licensing are?	PEL	25%
An accident must be reported if it happens between the time that the first person boards an aircraft and until the time that everyone has left the aircraft. Which of the following accidents must NOT be reported?	The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.	25%
If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of EASA-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects her/his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:	The medical certificate ceases to be valid.	25%
How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?	12 months.	24%
Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight mean:	Aerodrome unsafe, do not land	24%
Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?	Aircraft B if A is on its left.	24%
In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended?	All answers are correct.	24%
Choose correct answer. Except when a special VFR clearance is obtained, VFR flights shall NOT take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are:	300 meter ceiling and 4 km visibility.	23%
At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a Private Pilot Licence?	45 hours.	23%
You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:	Continue circling, give way to other aircraft.	23%
A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation is required?	2 minutes.	21%
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?	Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.	21%
Manouvering area includes:	Runways and takiways, excluding apron	21%
If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, she/he has to:	Transmit a general call giving all details concerning her/his deviation from the ATC clearance.	21%
Which of the following is NOT a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?	Urgency phase.	21%
The skill tests for a class or type rating must be taken within ____ of completing flying instruction.	6 months.	20%
Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?	A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight.	20%
In the signal area of an aerodrome, a double white cross (Picture H) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Take special care during approach and landing!	20%
Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds?	The appropriate ATS authority.	19%
What is the meaning of the visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)	Landings are prohibited.	18%
What does the term "solo flight time" mean?	Solo flight time of a student-pilot.	18%
Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a LAPL/PPL fly, provided she/he is properly endorsed?	All aircrafts without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.	16%