Statistics for pharmacology - multi choice mid sem practice exam

Click here to take the quiz!

General Stats
Answer Stats
Score Distribution
Your Score History

General Stats

This quiz has been taken 62 times
The average score is 25 of 62

Answer Stats

Question	Answer	% Correct
The –olol ending in a drug name denotes that the drug belongs to which drug class?	Beta adrenergic blocker	81%
Drug A has a lower potency and a lower efficacy than drug B. Therefore drug A is:	A partial agonist	79%
Which of the following is classed as a parenteral route of drug administration?	Subcutaneous	74%
When phenobarbitone reduces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by accelerating its hepatic metabolism, it is acting as a:	Pharmacokinetic inhibitor	64%
Heroin is usually measured in 25 mg bags. Unsuspecting users of China White who normally use three bags of heroin to get a ‘high’ died after injecting one bag of China White. If 50% of China White users died after injecting one bag, which of the following statements is correct?	The LD50 for China White is 25 mg	64%
Assays to look at dose-effect interactions reveal which of the following?	Emax, ED50	62%
Frusemide is an example of:	Loop diuretic	62%
A 55-year-old woman with heart failure is to be treated with a diuretic drug. Drugs X and Y have the same mechanism of diuretic action. Drug X in a dose of 5 mg produces the same magnitude of diuresis as 500 mg of drug Y. This suggests that:	Drug X is about 100 times more potent than drug Y	60%
Which of the following is not observed in Type II diabetes mellitus:	Unresponsive to treatment with oral hypoglycaemic drugs	55%
If 500mg of a drug is administered orally and 50mg is absorbed unchanged, the bioavailability of the drug is:	10%	53%
If drug A has an ED50 of 5mM, drug B has an ED50 of 50mM and drug C has an ED50 of 500mM, which drug is the most potent?	Drug A	53%
For a partial agonist, which of the following is true?	Need all receptors occupied to get non-maximal response	53%
The –profen ending in a drug name denotes that the drug belongs to which drug class?	Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)	53%
Which of the following is an antagonist at the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor?	Atropine	51%
Which of the following is classed as a parenteral route of drug administration?	Intravenous administration	51%
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs?	Irbesartan	51%
Systemic distribution of many drugs can evoke skin reactions that are a result of an immunological reaction, generally caused by photosensitization of the drug. What type of adverse effects would this be considered as?	Cutaneous reactions	49%
Which of the following receptor sub-groups elicits the fastest response when activated by an agonist?	Ligand-gated ion channels (e.g. nicotinic acetylcholine receptor)	49%
With respect to the harmful effects of drugs, which of the following statements is false?	The placenta acts as a barrier preventing all drugs taken by the mother from affecting the developing foetus	49%
Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune condition that targets acetylcholine receptors on the neuromuscular junction. Neostigmine is an effective treatment for this condition. Neostigmine is:	A cholinesterase inhibitor	47%
A particular illness or disease state in which a drug has been shown to have a therapeutic effect is known as:	An indication	45%
The levels of which ion directly increase as a result of digitalis action on the cardiac myocyte?	Sodium	45%
The amount of a drug given initially to obtain the desired plasma concentration as soon as possible is known as:	The loading dose	45%
What is the plasma concentration of a drug when 700 mg is given by IV bolus to a 220lb patient if her volume of distribution is 35 L/kg. (Please note that 1kg = 2.2lb)	0.2mg/L	43%
A drug has an elimination rate constant of 0.355 hr-1. Its elimination half-life is:	1.95 hours	43%
One of the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation, is urinary retention due to adrenaline-mediated bladder sphincter contraction. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is activated in this process?	Alpha 1	43%
Which of the following is an agonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?	Nicotine	43%
Which of the schedule levels indicates the entry level for a prescription-only medicine?	Schedule 4	43%
A single intravenous dose of 40 mg of diazepam was administered to a patient. A blood sample was drawn and it contained 50 µg/mL. Calculate the apparent volume of distribution for the drug.	0.8 L	40%
If 550 mg of a drug are administered intravenously and the resultant drug plasma concentration is determined to be 25 μg/100mL, what is the apparent volume of distribution of the drug?	2200L	40%
Arrange these in order of which elicits a faster response when activated by an agonist (fastest to slowest): a. Ligand-gated ion channels (e.g. nicotinic acetylcholine receptor) b. Kinase-linked receptors (e.g. insulin receptor) c. Nuclear receptors (e.g. oestrogen receptors) d. G protein-coupled receptors (e.g. muscarinic acetylcholine receptor)	a, d, b, c	40%
Two antihypertensive drugs, X and Y, were studied in a large group of patients and the percentages of the group showing a specific therapeutic effect (20 mm Hg decrease in systolic blood pressure) were determined. The results are shown in the table below. Which of the following statements about these results, from the information provided, is correct?	Drug X is less potent than drug Y	40%
How do angiotensin receptor blockers affect the production of aldosterone?	They inhibit production of aldosterone	40%
The area under the serum concentration-time curves (AUC) were measured after single doses of 10 mg of a new antihypertensive drug were administered in hypertensive patients. The results were as follows: intravenous bolus AUC = 2500 mg . h/L, oral capsule AUC = 500 mg . h/L, oral liquid AUC = 650 mg . h/L. What is the bioavailability of the oral liquid?	0.26 or 26%	38%
What is the plasma concentration of a drug when 700 mg is given by IV bolus to a 220lb patient if her volume of distribution is 3.5L/kg. (Please note that 1kg = 2.2lb)	2 mg/L	38%
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs?	Irbesartan	38%
Assuming complete absorption and an elimination half-life of 5 hours, how many mg of a drug will remain in the body 35 hours after administering a 400 mg dose?	3.125	36%
Assuming complete absorption and an elimination half-life of 5 hours, how many mg of a drug will remain in the body 35 hours after administering a 400 mg dose?	3.1 mg	36%
In the absence of other drugs, pindolol causes an increase in heart rate by activating beta adrenergic receptors. In the presence of highly effective beta receptor agonists, however, pindolol causes a dose-dependent, reversible decrease in heart rate. Therefore, pindolol is:	A partial agonist	36%
Which phase in drug development does post-marketing surveillance occur?	Phase IV	36%
Inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system with an antimuscarinic agent such as tropicamide, results in which of the following adverse effects?	Urinary retention	36%
In the absence of other drugs, pindolol causes an increase in heart rate by activating beta adrenergic receptors. In the presence of highly effective beta receptor agonists, however, pindolol causes a dose-dependent, reversible decrease in heart rate. Therefore, pindolol is classed as:	A partial agonist	34%
Which of the following is a beta adrenergic blocker used in the treatment of angina pectoris?	Atenolol	34%
Drug J raises the arterial blood pressure acting on heart and peripheral vessels whilst Drug K lowers arterial blood pressure causing vasodilation Therefore, Drug K can be classified as:	Physiological antagonist	34%
Which cellular compound does the phosphodiesterase enzyme family produce from cyclic AMP?	AMP	32%
Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem belong to which class of antiarrhythmic drugs used in the treatment of tachyarrhythmias?	Class IV	32%
Which of the statements below is true with regards to ethanol?	Ethanol has low chemical and low biological specificities	32%
Drug B is given to a rat and the maximal response is at 100. Drug C is given to the same rat and the maximal response has diminished. Drug A is further given at higher doses but response doesn’t change. What should Drug C be classified as?	Irreversible competitive antagonist	32%
Drug D reduces the anticoagulant effect of Drug F by accelerating its hepatic metabolism. What should Drug D be classified as?	Pharmacokinetic antagonist	30%
Atropine is an effective treatment for the relief of ciliary spasm. Atropine is:	A cholinergic antagonist	28%
Prazosin, a common vasodilator, belongs to which drug class?	Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist	28%
Which of the following is an anorexiant used in the treatment of obesity?	Phentermine	28%
ACE inhibitors are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs?	Captopril	26%
Drug F reduced the basal GTPase activity in a concentration dependent manner. What should Drug F be classified as?	Inverse agonist	26%
With respect to the pharmacokinetic properties of morphine, which of the following is true:	Morphine salts have poor oral bioavailability as they undergo extensive first- pass metabolism in the liver	23%
A 70 year old hypertensive man with a childhood history of asthma had a recent myocardial infarction and is prescribed metoprolol. Which class of drug does metoprolol belong to?	Beta 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist	19%
Which of the following is an antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?	d-Tubocurarine	19%
Which of the following is false for the stimulatory G protein Gs?	It is found on the inner leaflet of the cell plasma membrane	17%
One of the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation, is blood vessel vasodilation. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is activated in this process?	Beta 2	15%
When an antagonist interacts with a G protein coupled receptor, what is the effect of the drug on the GTPase activity of the G protein linked to that receptor.	It has no effect on the GTPase activity	15%
In the Langmuir equation, Ntot-N denotes:	The number of unoccupied receptors in a tissue after addition of drug	15%
When verapamil & nifedipine prevent the influx of calcium ions specifically blocking the contraction of smooth muscle produced by other drugs, they are acting as:	Non-competitive inhibitors	6%