070 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

P55
Quiz by JoonaT
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Last updated: September 22, 2022
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1. Whiteout phenomenom:
The sky is clear and sunshine makes landing difficult.
A condition of diffuse light when no shadows are cast, due to a continuous white cloud layer appearing to merge with the white snow surface.
Everything looks dark and there is a need for more lights to be able to perform succesfull landing.
You have to use night vision equipment.
2. Bird activity in vicinity of an airport is broadcasted via:
SNOWTAM
METAR
TAF
ATIS
3. In case of hazardous situation or damage in aviation the commander has to make a report:
Within 24 hours.
As soon as possible.
Within 48 hours.
Within 12 hours.
4. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by:
Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climb out.
Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.
Request intersection takeoff, incase large jet airplane starts ground roll from runway end.
Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
5. When operating a non-preasured aircraft at what preasure altitude you shall use supplemental oxygen?
13 000 ft.
8000 ft.
10 000 ft
9900 ft.
6. Which of the following cases requires submitting an incident report?
Passenger starts vomiting during a flight.
Landing light is u/s.
Change of route or destination due to weather.
Aileron gets partly stuck during a flight.
7. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
Left aileron up, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator up.
Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
8. What is your preferred action, if you are on VFR-flight and fly into a cloud?
180 degree turn and start trusting on external ques only after exiting the cloud.
180 degree turn and trust external ques also in the cloud.
Start decending until you exit the cloud.
Continue the flight normally.
9. Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a (see LAPL/PPL 070-01):
Multiple heliport.
Stabilized area.
Apron.
Closed runway.
10. First aid kit in EASA general aviation aircraft must be:
Easily accessible, regularly checked and maintained.
Marked with blue color for easier identification.
Marked with orange color for easier identification.
Easily accessible.
11. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti-collision light has failed. What course of action should he take?
Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.
Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light repaired at the earliest opportunity.
Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.
Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been repaired.
12. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is:
Heavily loaded.
Has flaps and landing gear extended.
Operating at high airspeeds.
Developing lift.
13. Which of the following advices is correct concerning noice abatement?
Use shortcuts during approach.
Fly with speed over 100 KIAS in final approach.
Perform intensive movements.
Follow published routes.
14. The greatest danger related to carbon monoxide poisoning during flight is:
It is impossible to identify carbon monoxide with any technical equipment.
Carbon monoxide likely ignites fire in aircraft's fueling system.
It is invisible, odorless and tasteless gas, which is very difficult to identify with senses and it may cause rapid unnoticeable loss of consciousness.
It is almost impossible to ventilate carbon monoxide away from the aircraft.
15. You are leaving for a flight from Helsinki-Malmi airfield to Lahti-Vesivehmaa airfield alone. Which of the following items is NOT mandatory?
Life vest
Fire extinguishant
First aid kit
Maps concerning the selected route
16. The numbers 4 and 22 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately: (see LAPL/PPL 070-02)
040° and 220° (magnetic).
040° and 220° (true).
004° and 022° (true).
004° and 022° (magnetic).
17. What is a recommended way of parking and anchoring an aircraft during severe wind conditions?
Nose towards headwind
There is not any recommended direction.
Nose towards tailwind
Tail towards headwind
18. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following lights:
Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.
Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
19. ICAO wake turbulence categories are:
Enormous, Heavy, Medium heavy, Light
Super heavy, Heavy, Medium heavy, Light
Enormous, Heavy, Light
Super heavy, Heavy, Medium heavy, Small
20. Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
Aileron neutral.
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
No relevance.
21. What safety information must be given to passengers before flight?
All options are correct
Function and use of doors
Function and use of seat belts
Location of fire extinguisher
22. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
Left aileron down, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
Left aileron up, elevator up.
Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
23. External inspection of an aircraft must be done:
Before every flight.
By mechanic.
In the morning.
After the last flight of the day.
24. Before flight, who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
Passenger.
A certified aircraft mechanic.
The owner.
25. How can you avoid emergency situation which is caused by taxiing to active runway without clearance?
All options are correct.
Using 'standard phraseology' in radiotelephony.
Stop before taxiing to a runway.
Visually confirm that runway is free before crossing it.
26. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of seat belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers with the location and the use of seat belts.
The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their seat belts fastened for the entire flight.
The pilot in command can brief the passengers with the location and the use of seat belts if he/she wants to.
The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers use of seat belts.
27. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried on an international flight?
The air traffic organisation to which the flight plan is submitted.
The organisation hiring out the aircraft.
The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.
The pilot in command.
28. Choose the right combination. Biggest wake turbulence forms aircraft which: 1. has large mass 2. has small mass 3. is flying high speed 4. is flying low speed 5. has large angle of attack 6. has small angle of attack
1+4+6
1+4+5
1+3+5
2+4+5
29. How should the flight controls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane with a strong tailwind?
Up.
In neutral.
Fully up
Down.
30. Which best describes the flight conditions under which pilots are specifically required to keep their safety harness fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
31. What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy aircraft that is stopped on the manoeuvring area?
The light aircraft should be no closer than 125 m from rear of large aircraft.
The light aircraft should face away from the large aircraft.
The light aircraft should be facing the large aircraft.
The light aircraft should be stopped clear of the jet blast danger area.
32. To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:
Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
Upwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.
Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
33. Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly registered, is airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must check a variety of documents. Which one of the following is not required to be checked?
Third Party Insurance certificate.
Certificate of Airworthiness.
Technical log.
Minimum Equipment List.
34. Can the downdraft air currents occurring as a result of wingtip vortices from a heavier aircraft exceed the climb capability of a light aircraft?
Not.
Yes, particularly behind large, heavy transport aircraft.
Occasionally, particularly in the vicinity of air pockets.
Not normally.
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
A pilot should primarily consider noise abatement when selecting flight route
Altitude does not really affect on noise pollution
A pilot can minimize noise pollution
Used descent profiles do not really affect on noise pollution
36. Where the Certificate of Registration must be kept in an aircraft while the aircraft is flying cross-country flight?
By the authority of the State of registration.
On the ground at the point of departure.
In the aircraft.
In the registered office of the owner.
37. The wake vortices are greatest when the aircraft:
Is light and flies slowly
Is light and flies fast
Is heavy and flies fast
Is heavy and flies slowly
38. Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?
The pilot-in-command of the aircraft.
The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness for the aircraft.
The state which issued the licence held by the pilot of the aircraft.
The state in which the aircraft is registered.
39. That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for: (see LAPL/PPL 070-01)
Taxiing and landing.
Taxiing.
Landing.
Taxiing and takeoff.
40. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult:
Minimum Equipment List, if applicaple.
Certificate of Airworthiness.
Pilot's Operating Handbook.
Certificate of Maintenance Review.
41. Which minimum life-saving equipment should be on board of a non-commercial flight of a single-engined landplane when flying en route over water beyond gliding distance from the shore?
Lifesaving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board.
Lifesaving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board and one life jacket for each person on board.
One life jacket or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board.
Lifesaving jackets in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board.
42. Aquaplaning on a wet runway usually occurs:
High speed
Crosswind
Only on frozen and flooded runways.
In a hot weather.
43. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
Left quartering headwind.
Quartering headwind.
Direct crosswind.
Quartering tailwind.
44. According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? (see LAPL/PPL 070- 01)
The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide means of stopping military aircraft.
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
Takeoffs shall be started at position B on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position A.
45. The most common fire extinguisher used in aircrafts contains:
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Halon
Powder extinguishant
Water
46. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be found in:
Aircraft's Flight Manual.
Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.
Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
Maintenance Log.
47. Windshear is:
Rapid change of wind direction.
Rapid change of wind direction and/or speed.
Mechanic turbulence.
Rapid change of wind speed.
48. Which of the following is recommended, if possible, in case of emergency landing in to terrain?
Landing only over the smallest obstacle
Landing direction should be as much as possible to headwind, taking into consideration obstacles
Landing direction always direct in to downwind.
Landing direction always direct in to headwind.
49. When flying in noise sensitive areas, it is recommendable to use ___ in takeoff and landing:
Higher speeds than normally
Steeper profiles than normally
Steep curves
Shallower profiles than normally
50. It is recommended that you pay attention to wind direction in evacuation situation after emergency landing. Leave the aircraft:
Above wind and return to the aircraft as soon as possible after the accident.
Above the wind and do not return to the aircraft until sufficient time has passed after the accident.
Leave the accident scene before help arrives.
Below wind and return to the aircraft as soon as possible after the accident.
51. 'Preflight check' must be performed:
Before every flight.
Only before check flight.
Before the first flight of the day.
When taxiing.
52. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the agent used in fire extinguisher onboard aircrafts?
Halon
Type and quantity must be suitable for such fires, which are most likely to ignite in the location where fire extinguisher is planned to be used.
Type and quantity must be suitable for all types of fires, in the location where fire extinguisher is planned to be used.
Type and quantity must be suitable for all types of fires.
53. ICAO Annex 6 regulates:
Survival equipment
Drones
National law
Operation of Aircraft
54. When flying in an area where it's mandatory to use life vests, you need to give following information to passengers:
You may not wear live vest during flight.
Don't inflate life vest until outside of an aircraft.
Passengers don't need any information how to use life vests.
Life vest must be inflated as soon as a decision of an emergency landing has been made.
55. What actions have been done to reduce risk of fire when fueling?
Defining an area where it is forbidden to smoke and make an open fire.
Defining an area where it is forbidden to make an open fire.
Defining an area where it is forbidden to smoke.
Person fueling has to define an area for fueling.
56. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering tailwind?
Left aileron up, elevator down.
Right aileron down, elevator neutral.
Left aileron down, elevator down.
Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
57. What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? (see LAPL/PPL 070-01)
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun.
"A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landing; "E" may be used for only as an overrun.
"A" may be used only for taxiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
"A" may be used for takeoff only; "E" may be used only for taxi only.
58. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?
Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.
Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the runway.
All the time the aircraft is flying.
59. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are display lights to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this purpose?
Landing light.
Red anti-collision light.
Tail light.
Navigation lights.
60. Which of the following instructions concerning noise abatement is correct?
Perform all turns steeply
Navigate via published departure routes
Navigating via published departure routes is not recommended
Perform always spot landings
61. During a flight you must conduct a forced landing. Which of the following is your primary task?
To activate the emergency beacons
To inform the passengers
To inform the air traffic control
To control the aircraft to the chosen forced landing field
62. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a larger aircraft crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
Increase airspeed to VNE and maintain altitude and course.
Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
63. The wingtip vortices of the preceding passenger aircraft:
Degrade almost instantly
Move with the wind
Climb up
Move straight towards the following aircraft
64. Single engine land aircrafts must have lifejackets or personal floating devices for all person's onboard, if:
The aircraft is flown over land.
The aircraft is flown over water farther away from land, than gliding distance.
The aircraft is used for taxiing practices.
The aircraft is flown over water within the gliding distance from land.
65. Choose the correct answer concerning noise abatement procedures.
Noise abatement areas all always restricted areas.
It is forbidden to use power more than 50% from max power in noise abatement areas.
All populous areas are concidered as noise abatement areas.
Noise abatement areas are marked on the chart with specific symbols.
66. How do you perform a visual approach behind MD11-aircraft (heavy)?
You fly above MD11's glide path and land your aircraft as close threshold as possible.
You fly below MD11's glide path.
It doesn't effect when planning approach.
You fly above MD11's glide path and land your aircraft after MD11's touchdown point.
67. What would be most likely to cause an upset while taxiing a nose-wheel equipped aircraft in strong wind?
Lifting the nose-wheel
Accelerating suddenly.
Applying the brakes suddenly & firmly.
Turning sharply (causing the wind to lift the up-wind wing).
68. Which of the following weather phenomena is NOT usually hazardous for flight operations?
Icing
Severe turbulence
Wind
Thunder
69. How long will wake turbulence remain after the passage of a large aircraft?
Three minutes.
Five minutes or more; ATC permits two or three minutes separation.
Two minutes.
Less than four minutes.
70. Which one of the following alternatives is correct concerning floating devices when operating above sea and water areas?
Life jackets are not mandatory.
The number of life vests onboard must be sufficient for all passengers and crew.
Survival suits must be worn always when operating in the vicinity of water areas.
Liferaft is mandatory when operating in the vicinity of water areas.
71. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying:
Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
Below the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
Below the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing after the large aircraft's touchdown point.
Above the large aircraft's final approach flight path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
72. In a case of an emergency, who is responsible of evacuating the passengers?
Aviation authority
The passengers themselves
Pilot in command
The owner of the aircraft
73. When landing to a runway after a heavy aircraft, a helicopter ends up more easily in the wake vortices of the preceding aircraft when:
Landing to the beginning of a runway when the wind is calm
Approaching above the wind
Landing further to a runway
Approaching above the glideslope
74. Which type of agent is used to fight electrical fire in the cockpit?
Powder
Oil
Water
Halon
75. The person directly responsible for the safety briefing of passengers for a flight is:
Safety officer.
Ground crewmember.
ATC.
Pilot in command.
76. What frequency should be monitored by an aircraft when taking-off from an uncontrolled airfield inside the Finnish airspace taking in to consideration good airmanship?
117.8 MHz.
EFHK APP.
Area Control Center (ACC).
121.1 MHz.
77. What is the most likely cause of the dangerous turbulence behind heavy aircraft?
Wingtip vortices.
Jet blast.
Propeller blast.
Microburst.
78. Which of the following is NOT an item that must be instructed for the passengers before the flight?
The function of the safety belts
The use of air conditioning device
How to open and close the doors
How to enter and exit an aircraft
79. How many handheld fire-extinguishers must be onboard EASA registered AC, without separate passenger compartment?
0
3
1
2
80. Passengers are instructed how to use safety belts and doors:
After takeoff
Only in commercial operations
Only in special circumstances
Before a flight
81. A pilot can confront a white out phenomenom:
When landing on a frozen lake covered with snow in cloudy weather
When flying during winter frosts
When flying in freezing rain
When landing in rain
82. The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area (see LAPL/PPL 070-02):
Is unsuitable for aircraft operation.
Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
May be used only for taxiing.
Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
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